Friday, October 19, 2018

Two Arguments Against Equalization of Group Outcomes

In my previous post I offered an argument for why attempting to equalize group outcomes requires a showing that the outcomes are the result of unjustified, differential treatment of the groups. In this post I'd like to offer two arguments against the attempt to equalize group outcomes at all.

Argument 1: Groupings Are Arbitrary

Recent articles about differences in group outcomes, especially those dealing with ML/AI algorithms, typically look at disparities on only one axis: Amazon's screening algorithm was biased against women, or the COMPAS tool produced differential outcomes respect to race. In the case of COMPAS, Alexandra Chouldechova discusses various trade-offs (p. 12) that can be made in the model in an attempt to achieve a more fair outcome with respect to race.

But why focus on just one axis of classification? Surely gender is as important as race, so don't we need to equalize along that axis as well. Rather than just worrying about disparities between blacks and whites we need to tweak the model so that outcomes are equal: black women = white women = black men = white men. Note that if you do so the nature of your tweaks will be different than if you're just equalizing against one axis; the solutions are mutually irreconcilable.

And why stop at two protected characteristics? Why not include sex, or religion, or sexual orientation? Who's prepared to argue that any of those are less (or more) important that gender or race?

In fact, the only even remotely principled approach that I can come up with is to make sure that you, in the minimum, include all Federally protected characteristics as independent axes of analysis:

  1. Race
  2. Religion
  3. National origin
  4. Age
  5. Sex
  6. Pregnancy
  7. Citizenship
  8. Familial status
  9. Disability status
  10. Veteran status
That means there are more than 2^10 = 1024 separate groupings that you have to equalize, at which point you should jus t pitch your model entirely because it'll be totally useless.
I'm not seriously suggesting that this needs to be done, but rather pointing out that the group outcomes which need to be equalized depend heavily on which protected characteristics you select for analysis; an algorithm (or human-run decision process) which equalizes outcomes against one set of characterstics isn't guaranteed to do so against another. Since the selection of protected characteristics (Race? Gender? Both?) is arbitrary there's no way to choose one process/algorithm over the other; you're stuck, like Buridan's ass, between mutually irreconcilable solutions.

Argument 2: Groups Have No Independent Moral Standing

A "group of people" is an abstraction, a convenient fiction useful for talking about the aggregate properties of the individuals of which it is composed. When we talk of "black men" or "white women" we're not talking about some entity, "out there" somewhere, but rather making a generalization about the set of people fulfulling the predicates "black" (or "white") and "man" (or "woman"). It's simply a category error to assert that there is some entity "black men" that has moral standing, and that can be made whole by equalizing outcomes with other group abstractions.

Here, have a parable, with cake:




I'll be the first to admit that the above is a rather loose analogy, but it still concisely illustrates my point. Everyone ends up the same amount of cake, on average, but relying on averages conceals the fact that Alice is still stuck doing communications for a direct mail marketing firm when she would have been much happier as a materials engineer. You could give Beatrice an arbitrarily large amount of cake and it still wouldn't redress the initial injustice perpetrated on Alice.

Which is, I think, a fundamental truth: Injustices happen to individual people. The insistence on statistical parity at the group level is an exercise in moral bookkeeping that mistakes the measure for the goal; the Alices of the world will not be made whole no matter how much cake we give to the world's Beatrices.

Which is not to say that there aren't cases, potentially many of them, where ensuring statistically equal outcomes does address the underlying injustice. However, given the counter-example above, we cannot simply assume that to be true. Rather, there has to be a showing that ensuring equality of outcome actually addresses the underlying injustice.

In Closing: High Hurdles

So what have we learned?

  • Group selection is frequently, if not always, arbitrary.
  • Ensuring equal outcomes at the group level is not inherently just.
Anyone who claims that justice requires equality of outcome has the burden of demonstrating that
  • The groups which are being equalized are non-arbitrary.
  • Ensuring equality of outcome actually addresses the underlying injustice.
To do otherwise results in a violation of individuals' right to equal treatment in a way which cannot be publicly justified.

Saturday, October 13, 2018

A Coda About Equal Treatment vs. Equal Outcomes

Separate from my general observations about "algorithmic bias", I wanted to dwell for a bit on something that Narayanan says around 32:06 in his presentation. Paraphrasing slightly:

If we want to harmonize, to balance outcomes between different groups, we have to treat different people from different groups differently, even if they are similar in all the ways we think that matter to the decision making task. That seems like a very uncomfortable notion to deal with.
He's absolutely right; you can't have both equal treatment and equal outcomes if there's any sort of difference in prevalence between groups. The tension between the two should make us uncomfortable, because no matter how you slice it it seems that someone is being treated unfairly.

Honestly, I don't find this problem to be nearly as vexing as he does. Here's my recapitulation of the underlying reasoning:

  1. Treating different groups differently, when all the relevant facts about them are the same, is presumptively bad; "failure to treat like groups alike" is actually a pretty good definition of "unjustified discrimination".
  2. This presumption can be overcome if such treatment serves to rectify injustices at the group level.
  3. Inequality in outcome X at the group level is indicative of just such injustice.
  4. From 1, 2, 3: Differential treatment of like groups is justified.
The problem here, though, is that it's easy to demonstrate that 3 doesn't hold for all X.

Consider Ibram X. Kendi's recent statement regarding racial disparities:

As an anti-racist, when I see racial disparities, I see racism.
This is a concrete example of the reasoning in step 3. If we take Kendi's statement at face value we should, for example, treat the overwhelming prevalance of African American employees in instituations catering to African Americans as a sign of anti-white bias. After all, racial disparities in workforce composition are, per Kendi, a clear sign of racism. But no reasonable person (including, presumably, Kendi himself) actually believes this to be the case, which demonstrates two things:
  • Kendi's statement has unvoiced caveats.
  • Group disparities in outcome can, in some cases, be explained by innocuous causes.
Or, put more plainly, it doesn't take an assumption of invidious motives to explain why Ebony's staff is mostly African-American.

Having demonstrated that unequal outcomes can occur for morally blameless reasons it follows that step 3 above needs to be rewritten:

3. Inequality in outcome X at the group level is indicative of just such injustice, provided a showing can be made that the disparity results from unjustified differential treatment between those groups.

"But", you may say, "you've set your standard of proof too high. It's quite difficult, in practice, to prove that differences in outcome are due to unequal treatment". My rebuttal is that's a feature, not a bug; it should be difficult.

I'm going to go all Rawlsian for a bit, because that seems to be a good framework for talking about this issue. It's plausible that an arbitrary individual, looking at this issue from behind the veil of ignorance, might agree to "take one for the team" and cede eir right to equal treatment in order to further a more just society, provided that it's clear that there is acctually an injustice at the group level. However, it's a much harder sell if the injustice is merely speculative; why should anyone give up eir claim to equal treatment to correct an injustice that is stricly conjectural? Assuming that disparities in group outcomes must be rectified is bad policy because it fails the test of public justification.

Before I sign off I should also point out that I've said nothing about step 2 so far. I don't think it holds either, but it wasn't necessary to go that far in this post. I'll have more to say about that next.

Notes On "Algorithmic Bias"

In which I complain about people conflating broken algorithms with a broken world.

What is (Presently) Meant By "Algorithmic Bias"

Let's make sure I'm not attacking a straw man. Google tells me that:

Alright then, it's pretty clear that the phrase "algorithmic bias" as used in contemporary dialogue applies to any situation where algorithmically-generated results promote inequity.

"Bias" is Already Defined for Algorithms

Inciting complaint: "algorithmic bias", as currently used, tramples all over the concept of "measurement bias"/"systematic error" as applied to algorithms.

The results of an algorithmic computation can be systematically "off": too high, too low, or reliably wrong in some other way. "Bias" has historically been used as a label to describe this kind of wrongness.

An algorithm which displays systematic error is objectively wrong; it's producing the wrong output for any given set of inputs. Provided that the root cause of the error is understood it's often the case that the algorithm can be modified/improved to reduce or eliminate the error. The key point here is that the code itself is broken.

In some sense this is an argument about semantics; why should we prefer one definition to the other? We shouldn't, necessarily, but it's important to be able to separate the concept of bias due to broken code (which I'll call the "technical sense") from bias due to other causes (which I'll call the "lay" sense). In the very least we need some sort of a colloquialism which captures this distinction for the lay public, but such a colloquialism doesn't seem to be forthcoming.

Why is the Distinction Important?

There are certainly cases where code itself can be biased in the broad, discrimination-against-classes-of-people, sense of the word. The previous generation of expert systems were often rule-based; they made decisions on the basis of heuristics which were hand-coded by humans. By explicitly introducing rules about different classes of people the programmers could produce an algorithm which was "biased" in the present, lay sense of the word. The fix for this sort of biased algorithm is to eliminate the rules which encode the biased behavior.

However: Expert systems have had their day. Building rule-based systems turned out, in the end, to be impractical: it relied on humans to pick out salient behaviors, maintaining and enlarging rulesets is laborious and error-prone, and so on. In contrast, the current generation of AI/ML systems is basically all stats under the hood; there generally aren't explicit rules about classes of peopled. Rather, they work by taking solved instances of the problem in question (aka "training set") combined with some sort of error minimization technqique (gradient descent is popular) to build a predictive model (often a linear equation) to produce outputs for arbitrary future inputs.

Some things to note about this new generation of algorithms:

  • They don't have heuristics and generally have no explicit knowledge of classes of people. Even when class membership is included as an input value, the algorithm has no a priori reason to treat one class any differently from any other.
  • There are standard methods, like cross-validation to test how "good" the model is.
  • There is generally a well-defined metric for "goodness", be it precision and recall in the case of classifiers or root mean square error (RMSE) for models producing continuous output.
The above is important because it means that you can objectively measure whether one of theses stats-based algorithms is doing it's job i.e. to accurately map inputs to outputs.

And herein lies the crux of the matter: An algorithm can be unbiased (i.e. accurately maps inputs to outputs) in the technical sense of the word but produce results which are biased in the lay sense of the word.

Responding to a "Biased" Algorithm

The Nature article that I linked to above provides a good example of a model which is unbiased in the technical sense but biased in the lay sense:

The developer of the algorithm, a Michigan-based company called Northpointe (now Equivant, of Canton, Ohio), argued that the tool was not biased. It said that COMPAS was equally good at predicting whether a white or black defendant classified as high risk would reoffend (an example of a concept called 'predictive parity'). Chouldechova soon showed that there was tension between Northpointe's and ProPublica's measures of fairness. Predictive parity, equal false-positive error rates, and equal false-negative error rates are all ways of being 'fair', but are statistically impossible to reconcile if there are differences across two groups - such as the rates at which white and black people are being rearrested (see 'How to define 'fair''). "You can't have it all. If you want to be fair in one way, you might necessarily be unfair in another definition that also sounds reasonable," says Michael Veale, a researcher in responsible machine learning at University College London.

So, how are we to respond? Is a response merited at all?

We've already stipulated that the algorithm is technically correct in that it maps inputs to outputs appropriately. So, to start with, we have to ask how do we know that it's biased in the lay sense? There seem to be a couple of distinct cases here:

  • The algorithm's output is, in aggregate, in conflict with other observations.
  • The algorithm results in differential treatment of some populations, which is definitionally taken to be indicative of bias.

I think it's uncontroversial to hold that, if we use AI-/ML-based decision tools, those tools need to produce judgements that are congruent with reality. Several lifetimes ago I worked for an ML company, and one of the primary challenges we had was simply getting the data needed to adequately represent reality. ML models are very much a GIGO technology; if your inputs are crap then your outputs are going to be crap as well. When a model conflicts with reality we should trust reality and either fix the model or discard it entirely.

But what about the other case, where the algorithm is technically sound and whose output is consistent with independent observations?

Arvind Narayanan gave a lecture on ML and defintions of fairness which I believe provides a fair survey of current thinking in this area. There's a lot of discussion (with algebra and proofs even) about how its literally impossible to fulfill various equality-of-outcome criteria if different groups have different prevalances of whatever it is you're trying to predict. Also, too, the persistent problem of real-world brokenness; reality itself is biased against various and sundry groups of people. At which point I step back and say "Hold on, why are you using a predictive model in the first place?".

Being as charitable as possible, I think this is a case of missing the forest for the trees. People become very invested in predictive models, only to have concerns regarding equality of outcome arise at a later date. The natural inclination, especially if the continuing use of predictive models is crucial to your livelihood, is to try to square the circle and hack some sort of compromise solution into the algorithm.

But let's take a step back and make a couple of observations:

  • The whole reason why you use a predictive model in the first place is because you don't know what your outcome distributions should be. If you know a priori what your distributions should be that significantly undercuts the case for using a model.
  • Predictive models are designed to replicate facts-on-the-ground for novel inputs. If your critique is that the facts on the ground are fundamentally broken then this too argues against the use of predictive models.
Taking the concerns in Narayana's video at face value, it seems like predictive models are simply the wrong technology to apply if your overriding concern is equality of outcome.

In the case where people are dead set on using a predictive model I'd tender the following arguments against modifying the model itself:

  • Predictive models are good at taking existing patterns and extending them; stop trying to square the circle and let the technology do what the technology is good at.
  • Unmodified, such models have the useful property (discussed above) that they are free from bias in the "unjustified, differential treatment of groups" sense. Setting aside the problem of broken training sets, this preserves the important and useful ability to generate outputs according to an unbiased decision-making process. If you start putting in adjustments to ensure certain outcome distributions you've introduced (benevolent) bias and thus lose this ability.
  • De-coupling the model from equity adjustments increases transparency. It forces equity adjustments into their own process, distinct from model learning, rather than wrapping everything together in one opaque process, which makes it much easier to understand the nature and magnitude of the adjustments being applied.

In Conclusion

Current discussion of "algorithmic bias" could benefit from some nuance:

  • ML/AI models which are unacceptably error-prone or obviously broken in some other way should be discarded. There doesn't appear to be anyone arguing otherwise.
  • It is very, very rarely (never?) the case that ML/AI algorithms themselves engage in any sort biased reasoning. This property compares favorably with the previous generation of expert systems, as well as human decision makers, both of which have been shown to engage in biased reasoning.
  • In the case where ML/AI models result in biased outcomes this is usually due to unequal prevalances in the training data. Determining whether the training data adequately captures reality is a related, but ultimately separate, problem.
  • Predictive models aren't an appropriate tool for situations where equality of outcome is a driving concern.

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